when the two houses are sold and one house is purchased then a person is entitled to deduction u/s 54 or 54F. There was no need to think of any case law. If number of shares/securities are sold and one residential unit is purchased then the person is not entitled for exemption/deduction under these sections. Can u argue that the said person is entitled to claim exemption/deduction under these sections against the capital gains arising from one share( not from different shares) only. This question is very simple and without any doubt the answer is yes. In my opinion no case law is required to support this view and the section itself communicate the same meaning.